AskMCQ Latest Questions

Pankaj Chaudhary
  • 0
  • 0

(D) Later historical age 2. Indus Valley civilization was NonAryan because

  • 0
  • 0

(A) It was an Urban civilization
(B) It has its own script
(C) It has an agricultural economy
(D) It extended upto the Narmada
valley

Leave an answer

You must login to add an answer.

1 Answer

  1. Correct Answer: (B) It has its own script

    Explanation:

    The classification of Indus Valley Civilization as Aryan or Non-Aryan is complex and not solely based on archaeological findings. However, the presence of a distinct, undeciphered script ( Indus Script) distinguishes the Indus Valley Civilization from later Vedic civilization, which is associated with the arrival of Indo-European speakers and the development of the Sanskrit language.

    Here’s why the other options are not necessarily indicative of being Non-Aryan:

    • (A) Urban Civilization: While the Indus Valley was a prominent urban civilization, there’s no clear link between urbanization and Aryan/Non-Aryan categorization.
    • (C) Agricultural Economy: Agriculture was a common feature of many ancient societies, and doesn’t necessarily point towards Aryan or Non-Aryan origins.
    • (D) Extended Upto Narmada Valley: The geographical extent doesn’t determine the racial or linguistic identity of a civilization.

Related Questions